Wednesday, January 18, 2012

Divorce in the 19th Century


After today’s class, I began to think about the question that was raised: “Why didn’t Mr. Rochester divorce Bertha?” I was curious as to what the divorce laws in the 19th century were. 

·         For a male to get a divorce, he had to say that his wife had committed adultery.  I think that it would be challenging for Mr. Rochester to say that Bertha was being unfaithful. Because she is locked up, Bertha does not have the opportunity to have an affair.
 
·         Here is a little side note about divorce laws in the 19th century.  Women had a much harder time obtaining a divorce. Unlike men, women had to prove that her husband had been unfaithful. In an era with zero technology, proving adultery would be quite difficult.  In addition, a woman had to prove that her husband was committing incest, cruelty, bigamy, or desertion. Men, however, were not expected to be faithful. It was socially acceptable for a man to have a mistress or a brothel.

 ·         Divorce laws directly addressed the issue of insanity. One source said, “According to the 1835 English Marriage Act, if both spouses were sane enough at the time of the wedding to understand the nature of the contract involved, that marriage contract could not be dissolved in the event of subsequent insanity -- even if the case was compounded by other extenuating circumstances, such as desertion, adultery, or physical abuse.” (Jane Eyre and Insanity)

 ·         Marriage was a big thing for women in the 19th century.  A woman who was unmarried was looked down upon and pitied. Her brother was supposed to take care of her (which may explain some of Mr. Mason’s interest in visiting Thornfield). Her options were few: a factory job or a maid in a wealthy family.






3 comments:

  1. I find the idea of "moral insanity" in the Stanford article particularly provoking. For me, it begs analysis of Rochester's place on the shared spectrum of mental health and moral goodness.
    "Charlotte’s idea of “moral insanity,” upon which she formed the character of Bertha, was not her own; James Cowles Pritchard defined this concept in 1835 as a type of madness characterized by “a morbid perversion of the natural feelings, affections, inclinations, temper, habits, moral dispositions, and natural impulses, without any remarkable disorder or defect of the intellect, or knowing and reasoning faculties, and particularly without any insane illusion or hallucination.”

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  2. Another part of the Stanford article that I find to be interesting is this quote: "Women were thought to be more susceptible than men to such disorders and could even inherit them. Sexual appetite was considered one of the chief symptoms of moral insanity in women; it was subject to severe sanctions and regarded as abnormal or pathological."

    So, if a woman is interested in sex, then she is insane?

    These discussions of what is considered to be moral insanity make me question whether or not Bertha really is insane. If a man married me and then locked me away, I would probably consider setting his room on fire as well.

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  3. As I mentioned in class, I am grateful that you took the initiative to research/post this!

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